We want LI to be one of the friendliest places on the internet, where lawyers and law students help each other with their career related queries and occasionally discuss other stuff that might affect their lives too. In other words:
1. Be kind, respectful and helpful to each other.
2. Be bona fide, truthful, genuine and curious.
3. Assume the best intention of others.
Therefore, in using the site, you must agree to do your best to uphold these community guidelines.
Note that what you find here is written and moderated by anonymous people on the internet.
Therefore everything you read here is very likely unverified, rumour, speculation and/or downright false.
In continuing to read anything here, you must therefore agree not to take anything you read here as factual and that you will exercise due caution, diligence and common sense before acting on any information you may come across here.
You also agree to report any inaccurate or malicious comments with the buttons. Moderators take action within 24 hours, as required and appropriate under law.
Our full terms and conditions apply too.
Do you solemnly agree to all of the above?
a. firm disregards the 1 pqe at the boutique firm and you start at a0 (sometimes at all t1 firms, depends on the boutique)
b. firm gives you a percentage increment on your previous salary (s/cam, kco do this at times)
c. firm brings you on at the a1 band (rare but ideal)
I had a query regarding salary structuring on lateral movement. Suppose someone starts as an A0 at a boutique law firm with a package of around ₹5 LPA, and after one year (i.e., at the A1 level), they make a switch to a Tier-1 or Tier-2 law firm — in such a scenario, how is the compensation determined?
Would the pay be aligned with the standard A1 bracket at the T1/T2 firm, or would it be calculated based on a percentage increment over the candidate's previous CTC?
I would appreciate insights from those who have had similar experiences or are aware of the lateral hiring norms in the industry.
Thanks in advance!